#495
Post
by aloha » Mon Mar 09, 2020 10:38 am
Hello:
@jonghotti
Not wanting to be combative but...
After reading your comment several thoughts/questions came to mind. First, let me qualify, I don't know if aacs 2.1 is used on DVD, Blu ray, and/or 4K disks, but on the surface your comment seems to be full of FUD.
1. Please provide two (2) separate links citing the information you have presented. Please don't say Google it. Obviously you already did, OR you came across it somewhere. Save everyone the time and effort and supply the link(s).
2. Given a person has paid for a disk, a "royalty fee" has already been paid (in part). Said "fee" has to allow for numerous plays or an invoice would be receive for overages. Anyone receive an invoice for excessive use of disk media?
3. No where on the packaging does it indicate use of the disk require future "royalty fee" entitlements. So exactly how is the "movie studios" going to get said person who purchased the disk address to send them an invoice? Remember, there is #2 above regarding a "royalty fee" already paid.
4. What is the magical number of allowed plays BEFORE the "movie studios" deem YOU have exceeded the allowed count?
5. Where is this magical number disclosed?
6. Are disks not allowed to be played via a computer system (vs a "normal" stand alone player)?
7. Why are disks played via "1.02" charged a fee (even for one time use) vs standard player (many times use)?
8. If 1.02 does contain a tracker, can't the tracked be "blocked" via the on-site router? (This would automatically defeat ALL future "calling home to movie studios" and is easily accomplished with a Wireshark sniff.)
9. If 1.02 is used by "MakeMKV" to make a media shift OR backup of said disk for legitimate purposes, and then said media shifted content is played, how does the "movie studios" count the number of times said content was played so as to properly "bill" the viewing party/parties for excessive viewing over the allotted views that were never disclosed as to the count, actual "allowed player" and "call home" blocked for the proper "royalty fees" to be paid (#2, #3, #4, #5, #7, #8)?
10. Just where did the "movie studios" get said viewers address to send an invoice for "royalty fee" to be paid?
11. What if said viewer moved BEFORE invoice was sent?
12. What if the viewer viewed the content at a different location (IE parents house, significant other's house, summer/winter home, hotel room etc.)? Does that address get a separate allowed usage count? Does that address get an invoice? How does the "movie studio" know in fact the person being sent the invoice for viewing is/are the one(s) that actually viewed said content?
Lastly
13. What happens if the invoice received from the "movie studios" if not paid?
Sorry but to me this has way to many holes that need to be plugged BEFORE it would even be considered credible, hence the FUD comment above. I'm no attorney but I'm sure there is a few amongst this crowd that are and I'm sure they are churning ideas as to all sorts of (legal) ways this could be (easily) combatted/defeated.
Have a great day!
A
